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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 07:45

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What are the reasons behind Europeans preferring to visit third world countries over taking holidays in their own continent?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why are people outraged over Latina actress, Rachel Zegler, being cast to play Snow White in the live action remake of Disney’s Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs?

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.